MCCQE Part I: Canadian Medical Ethics (CMPA), Population Health, Biostatistics, Screening (CTFPHC) & Indigenous Health
Master Canadian Medical Protective Association (CMPA) medico-legal ethics, CanMEDS roles, Canadian Task Force on Preventive Health Care (CTFPHC) screening guidelines, Indigenous health principles, and biostatistics.
- Level
- basic
- Languages
- en → en
- Cards
- 32
- Markdown
- MCCQE Part I: Canadian Medical Ethics (CMPA), Population Health, Biostatistics, Screening (CTFPHC) & Indigenous Health (.md)
Flashcards (32)
| # | Front (Term / Question) | Back (Definition / Answer) | Example | Multiple-Choice Options |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | How does disease Prevalence affect Sensitivity, Specificity, Positive Predictive Value (PPV), and Negative Predictive Value (NPV)? | Sensitivity and Specificity are intrinsic test properties and DO NOT change with prevalence; as prevalence increases, PPV increases and NPV decreases. | ||
| 2 | What is the difference between Confounding and Effect Modification (Interaction) in epidemiological studies? | Confounding is a distortion of the exposure-outcome association by an extraneous variable associated with both exposure and outcome (eliminated by randomization, restriction, matching, or stratification). Effect modification is a true biological phenomenon where the magnitude of the exposure-outcome effect genuinely differs across strata of a third variable (report stratum-specific estimates, do NOT adjust away). | ||
| 3 | According to the CTFPHC, who should receive a one-time Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) screening ultrasound? | Men aged 65 to 80 years (one-time ultrasound screening; CTFPHC recommends against routine screening in women or men >80). | ||
| 4 | In Quebec, what is the statutory age at which a minor can independently consent to medical care required by their state of health? | 14 years of age under the Civil Code of Québec (parental notification is required only if the minor is sheltered in a health facility for more than 12 hours). | ||
| 5 | According to the CTFPHC, what is the routine Cervical Cancer screening recommendation? | Screen asymptomatic sexually active women aged 25 to 69 every 3 years with a Pap test (or every 5 years with primary HPV DNA testing where implemented provincially, such as BC and Ontario). | ||
| 6 | In Canada, when does a physician have a mandatory duty to breach confidentiality and report to outside authorities? | 1) Suspected child abuse or neglect (to Child Protection Services/CAS in all provinces), 2) Reportable communicable diseases (to Public Health), 3) Medical unfitness to drive (mandatory in most provinces like ON, BC, MB; discretionary in AB, NS, QC under specific conditions), 4) Gunshot wounds (and stab wounds in certain provinces), 5) Aviation/maritime/railway safety positions, 6) Imminent risk of serious bodily harm/death to an identifiable person or group (Smith v. Jones). | ||
| 7 | What are the 7 CanMEDS Physician Competency Roles tested on the MCCQE Part I and NAC OSCE? | Medical Expert (central integrative role), Communicator, Collaborator, Leader, Health Advocate, Scholar, and Professional. | ||
| 8 | In Canadian public health, which drinking water advisory requires boiling water for at least 1 minute vs. not using the water at all? | Boil Water Advisory: microbiological contamination (E. coli, Giardia, Cryptosporidium)—boil at a rolling boil for 1 minute. Do Not Consume Advisory: chemical/heavy metal/cyanobacterial toxin contamination that boiling cannot remove (or concentrates). Do Not Use Advisory: contamination affecting skin/inhalation. | ||
| 9 | According to the CTFPHC, what is the routine Breast Cancer screening recommendation for average-risk women? | Routine screening mammography every 2 to 3 years for women aged 50 to 74; for ages 40 to 49, shared decision-making based on patient preferences (many provincial programs now allow self-referral starting at age 40). | ||
| 10 | In Canadian MAID legislation (Bill C-7), how does the procedural safeguard differ when natural death IS reasonably foreseeable (Track 1) vs. NOT reasonably foreseeable (Track 2)? | Track 1 (death reasonably foreseeable): 10-day reflection period removed, final consent waiver permitted if patient risks losing capacity. Track 2 (death NOT reasonably foreseeable): requires a minimum 90-day assessment period, expertise in the condition causing suffering, and discussion of all reasonable palliative/disability supports. | ||
| 11 | How should a Canadian physician respond when served with a third-party subpoena vs. a court order/search warrant for patient records? | Do not release records merely on a lawyer's letter; only release confidential records with signed patient authorization or a valid statutory requirement/court order, disclosing only the minimum necessary information, and contact the CMPA immediately for advice. | ||
| 12 | According to CMPA guidelines on Disclosing Harm from Healthcare Delivery, what should a physician say and avoid saying when an adverse event occurs? | Apologize sincerely ('I am sorry this happened'—protected by provincial Apology Acts and does not constitute an admission of legal liability), state the known clinical facts and next steps, and AVOID speculating, blaming colleagues, or opining on legal negligence before investigation. | ||
| 13 | In Canadian biostatistics, define Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, and Quaternary Prevention with a clinical example of each. | Primary: preventing disease before it occurs (HPV vaccination, smoking cessation). Secondary: early detection of asymptomatic disease (FIT colon screening, mammography). Tertiary: reducing complications/disability of established disease (cardiac rehab post-MI, diabetic foot care). Quaternary: preventing over-medicalization and iatrogenic harm (deprescribing, avoiding unnecessary PSA/imaging per Choosing Wisely Canada). | ||
| 14 | Under CMPA rules, who owns the physical or electronic medical record vs. the information inside it? | The physician, clinic, or hospital owns the physical/electronic medical record medium, while the patient has a legal right of access and control over the personal health information contained within it (McInerney v. MacDonald). | ||
| 15 | Under the Canada Health Act (CHA), what are the 5 foundational pillars that provinces must uphold to receive federal Canada Health Transfer funding? | Public Administration, Comprehensiveness, Universality, Portability, and Accessibility. | ||
| 16 | According to Diabetes Canada guidelines, at what age and interval should average-risk adults be screened for Type 2 Diabetes? | Every 3 years starting at age 40 (or earlier/more frequently in high-risk individuals determined by the CANRISK calculator) using Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) and/or HbA1c. | ||
| 17 | What is the CTFPHC recommendation regarding routine Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) screening for prostate cancer? | Recommends AGAINST routine population-wide PSA screening for men of all ages because false positives, biopsy complications, and overdiagnosis outweigh the small mortality reduction (use shared decision-making if requested by patient). | ||
| 18 | What are the three criteria from the Supreme Court of Canada ruling in Smith v. Jones (1999) justifying a breach of confidentiality to protect public safety (Tarasoff-equivalent)? | 1) There is a clear risk to an identifiable person or group of persons, 2) There is a risk of serious bodily harm or death, and 3) The danger is imminent. | ||
| 19 | What do the Truth and Reconciliation Commission (TRC) Calls to Action #18 to #24 specifically address in Canadian healthcare? | Acknowledging that the current state of Indigenous health is a direct result of previous Canadian government policies (including residential schools), closing health outcome gaps, recognizing Indigenous healing practices, increasing Indigenous healthcare professionals, and mandating cultural competency/anti-racism training in all medical and nursing schools. | ||
| 20 | What is Jordan's Principle in Canadian Indigenous health policy? | A child-first legal rule ensuring First Nations children receive needed public services and health care immediately when requested, without delays caused by jurisdictional payment disputes between federal, provincial, or territorial governments. | ||
| 21 | In occupational health, what are the 5 levels of the Hierarchy of Hazard Controls from most effective to least effective? | 1) Elimination (physically remove the hazard), 2) Substitution (replace the hazard), 3) Engineering controls (isolate people from the hazard, e.g., negative-pressure rooms/ventilation), 4) Administrative controls (change the way people work), 5) Personal Protective Equipment (PPE—least effective alone). | ||
| 22 | Under Canadian medical law (excluding Quebec), is there a fixed statutory chronological age of consent for medical treatment (e.g., under the Ontario Health Care Consent Act)? | No—there is no minimum age of consent in common-law provinces; capacity depends on the 'Mature Minor' doctrine (whether the patient understands the nature, expected benefits, material risks, and consequences of refusing the proposed treatment). | ||
| 23 | What is Joyce's Principle in Canadian healthcare? | Guarantees to all Indigenous people the right of equitable access, without any social or systemic discrimination, to all social and health services, and the right to enjoy the best possible physical, mental, emotional, and spiritual health. | ||
| 24 | According to Osteoporosis Canada 2023 guidelines, at what age is routine baseline Bone Mineral Density (BMD / DXA) screening recommended for average-risk adults without prior fracture? | All women and men aged ≥70 years (or aged 50–69 if clinical risk factors exist, such as parental hip fracture, systemic glucocorticoid use ≥3 months, smoking, high alcohol intake, or low BMI). | ||
| 25 | What are the strict statutory eligibility criteria for Medical Assistance in Dying (MAID) under the Canadian Criminal Code? | Eligible for publicly funded Canadian health services, ≥18 years old and capable of making health decisions, have a 'grievous and irremediable medical condition' (serious/incurable illness, advanced state of irreversible decline, enduring intolerable suffering), make a voluntary written request signed by 1 independent witness, and be assessed by 2 independent practitioners. | ||
| 26 | Under the Ontario Health Care Consent Act (HCCA), what is the statutory hierarchy of Substitute Decision-Makers (SDMs) for an incapable patient? | 1) Court-appointed Guardian of the person, 2) Attorney for Personal Care (POA), 3) Representative appointed by the Consent and Capacity Board, 4) Spouse or partner, 5) Child (if capable/≥16) or parent, 6) Parent with right of access only, 7) Brother or sister, 8) Any other relative, 9) Public Guardian and Trustee (last resort). | ||
| 27 | What is the Choosing Wisely Canada guideline regarding imaging for acute low back pain? | Do NOT order lumbar spine X-rays, CT, or MRI for acute low back pain (<6 weeks) unless 'red flags' are present (cauda equina syndrome, urinary retention/saddle anesthesia, history of cancer, unexplained weight loss/fever, IV drug use, or major trauma). | ||
| 28 | According to the CTFPHC, who should undergo Low-Dose Computed Tomography (LDCT) screening for Lung Cancer? | Adults aged 55 to 74 years with at least a 30 pack-year smoking history who currently smoke or quit within the past 15 years, screened annually for up to 3 consecutive years. | ||
| 29 | According to the Canadian Task Force on Preventive Health Care (CTFPHC), what is the routine Colorectal Cancer screening schedule for average-risk adults? | Screen adults aged 50 to 74 every 2 years with Fecal Immunochemical Testing (FIT) or FOBT, OR every 10 years with flexible sigmoidoscopy (CTFPHC recommends AGAINST using colonoscopy as a primary routine population screening test in average-risk individuals). | ||
| 30 | What did the Supreme Court of Canada landmark case Reibl v. Hughes (1980) establish regarding the standard of disclosure for informed consent? | The 'modified objective patient standard': a physician must disclose all material, special, or unusual risks that a reasonable person in the patient's particular position would want to know before consenting. | ||
| 31 | Under Canadian medical ethics, how should a physician handle a conscientious objection (e.g., declining to perform MAID or abortion)? | The physician must treat the patient respectfully without judgment, provide timely information on all clinical options, and provide an 'effective referral' (or timely transfer of care per provincial College policy) so the patient's access to lawful care is never obstructed or delayed. | ||
| 32 | In a diagnostic test evaluation with 80 True Positives, 20 False Negatives, 10 False Positives, and 90 True Negatives, calculate Sensitivity, Specificity, PPV, and Positive Likelihood Ratio (LR+). | Sensitivity = 80 / (80+20) = 80%; Specificity = 90 / (90+10) = 90%; PPV = 80 / (80+10) = 88.9%; LR+ = Sensitivity / (1 - Specificity) = 0.80 / 0.10 = 8.0. |