19 min read
Technology, Cloud & AI English 6 Interactive Flashcard Decks

CompTIA (A+, Network+, Security+), CISSP, Cisco CCNA & PMP Certification Complete Study Guide

Accelerate your IT, Cybersecurity, Networking, and Project Management certifications with 192 flashcards covering CompTIA Core 1/2, OSI/Subnetting, SY0-701 Security+, CISSP 8 Domains, CCNA OSPF/VLANs, and PMP.

Practice 6 Curated CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+, CISSP Cybersecurity, Cisco CCNA & PMP Project Management Decks ↓ Browse All CompTIA A+ / Network+ / Security+, CISSP Cybersecurity, Cisco CCNA & PMP Project Management Flashcards →

Accelerate your IT, Cybersecurity, Networking, and Project Management certifications with 192 flashcards covering CompTIA Core 1/2, OSI/Subnetting, SY0-701 Security+, CISSP 8 Domains, CCNA OSPF/VLANs, and PMP.

Quick Access: Browse All CompTIA Flashcard Sets on Flashcards World — 6 complete progressive decks (192 verified flashcards) organized across Basic, Intermediate, and Advanced mastery tiers.

1. Complete 6-Deck Progressive Curriculum Matrix (192 Flashcards)

Module Mastery Level Curated Flashcard Deck Cards Direct Study Link
Module 1 Basic CompTIA A+ & Network+ — OSI Model (Layers 1–7), Common TCP/UDP Ports, Subnetting (CIDR), DNS, DHCP, VLANs & Wi-Fi (802.11) 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 2 Basic CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) — Threats, Malware, Cryptography, PKI, IAM (AAA, MFA, SAML/OAuth) & Zero Trust 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 3 Intermediate CISSP Cybersecurity — Security & Risk Management, Asset Security, Security Architecture & Incident Response 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 4 Intermediate Cisco CCNA (200-301) — Spanning Tree (STP), OSPF, BGP, EtherChannel, ACLs, NAT/PAT, IPv6 & Network Automation 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 5 Advanced PMP Project Management (PMBOK 7th Ed.) — Predictive, Agile & Hybrid Lifecycles, Scrum Ceremonies, Stakeholder & Risk Management 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 6 Advanced PMP Project Management — Earned Value Management (EVM: CPI, SPI, EAC, VAC), Critical Path Method (CPM) & Servant Leadership 32 Cards Practice Deck →

2. Module-by-Module Syllabus & Sample Active-Recall Flashcards

Each of the 6 modules below is engineered using atomic retrieval prompts: every card isolates a single high-yield rule, diagnostic criterion, statutory article, deadline, or clinical mechanism.

Module 1 (BASIC): CompTIA A+ & Network+ — OSI Model (Layers 1–7), Common TCP/UDP Ports, Subnetting (CIDR), DNS, DHCP, VLANs & Wi-Fi (802.11)

Deck Overview: Foundational IT and networking certification mastery for CompTIA A+ and Network+ covering the OSI 7-layer model PDUs and hardware, essential TCP/UDP ports, IPv4 CIDR subnetting, DNS hierarchy and records, DHCP DORA process, 802.1Q VLAN trunking, Wi-Fi 802.11 standards, and cabling standards.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 List the 7 layers of the OSI Model from Layer 7 to Layer 1 and their corresponding Protocol Data Units (PDUs). Layer 7: Application (Data); Layer 6: Presentation (Data); Layer 5: Session (Data); Layer 4: Transport (Segments for TCP / Datagrams for UDP); Layer 3: Network (Packets); Layer 2: Data Link (Frames); Layer 1: Physical (Bits). Remember: All People Seem To Need Data Processing.
2 What are the primary hardware devices and protocols associated with OSI Layer 1 (Physical) versus Layer 2 (Data Link)? Layer 1 (Physical): Hubs, repeaters, network cables (Cat6, fiber optic), wireless transceivers; handles electrical voltages, bits, and radio frequencies. Layer 2 (Data Link): Network Interface Cards (NICs), Layer 2 switches, bridges; uses 48-bit MAC addresses (EUI-48), Ethernet (802.3), Wi-Fi frames (802.11), and Frame Check Sequence (FCS/CRC).
3 Compare OSI Layer 3 (Network) and Layer 4 (Transport) responsibilities and protocols. Layer 3 (Network): Path determination, logical addressing, and packet forwarding across network boundaries (IPv4, IPv6, ICMP, IPsec, routers). Layer 4 (Transport): End-to-end host communication, port-level multiplexing, segmentation, and reliability. TCP provides connection-oriented, reliable, sequenced delivery with flow control; UDP provides connectionless, best-effort datagram delivery.
4 What port numbers and transport protocols are used by FTP, SSH, Telnet, SFTP, TFTP, and RDP? FTP: TCP 20 (data) & TCP 21 (control); SSH: TCP 22; Telnet: TCP 23; SFTP: TCP 22 (SSH File Transfer); TFTP: UDP 69 (Trivial FTP); RDP: TCP 3389 (Remote Desktop Protocol).
5 What port numbers and transport protocols are used by HTTP, HTTPS, DNS, DHCP, SMTP, POP3, and IMAP? HTTP: TCP 80; HTTPS: TCP 443; DNS: UDP/TCP 53; DHCP: UDP 67 (server) & UDP 68 (client); SMTP: TCP 25 (relay) / 587 (submission); POP3: TCP 110 (unencrypted) / 995 (POP3S); IMAP: TCP 143 (unencrypted) / 993 (IMAPS).
6 What port numbers and transport protocols are used by SNMP, LDAP, LDAPS, NTP, SMB, and Syslog? SNMP: UDP 161 (queries) & UDP 162 (traps); LDAP: TCP/UDP 389; LDAPS: TCP 636; NTP: UDP 123 (Network Time Protocol); SMB: TCP 445; Syslog: UDP 514 (default) or TCP 6514 (Syslog over TLS).

Module 2 (BASIC): CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) — Threats, Malware, Cryptography, PKI, IAM (AAA, MFA, SAML/OAuth) & Zero Trust

Deck Overview: CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) exam domain mastery covering social engineering vectors, malware classifications, symmetric vs asymmetric cryptography, PKI and certificate management, IAM architectures (AAA, MFA, federation with SAML and OAuth 2.0/OIDC), and Zero Trust Architecture.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 Distinguish between Phishing, Spear Phishing, Whaling, Vishing, Smishing, and Watering Hole attacks. Phishing: mass broadcast deceptive emails. Spear Phishing: highly customized attack targeting a specific individual or organization. Whaling: spear phishing targeting high-profile C-level executives. Vishing: voice/telephone phishing. Smishing: SMS text message phishing. Watering Hole: compromising a legitimate website frequently visited by a target organization to infect visitors.
2 Compare Virus, Worm, Trojan, Rootkit, and Ransomware malware mechanisms. Virus: attaches to host file and requires human action to execute and spread. Worm: standalone self-replicating malware that spreads autonomously across network vulnerabilities without user intervention. Trojan: appears benign/useful but conceals a malicious payload. Rootkit: gains kernel/ring-0 access and conceals processes/files from OS detection. Ransomware: encrypts victim files and extorts cryptocurrency payment for decryption.
3 What is the difference between Polymorphic Malware and Metamorphic Malware? Polymorphic Malware modifies its external appearance, decryptor routine, or encryption key with every infection while keeping the core underlying payload unchanged, altering its file hash. Metamorphic Malware completely rewrites, decompiles, and re-engineers its own internal code structure and logic each generation, altering both hash and behavioral signature.
4 How does SQL Injection (SQLi) occur, and what is the primary defensive programming technique to eliminate it? SQLi occurs when untrusted user input is directly concatenated into a dynamic SQL query, allowing an attacker to manipulate SQL syntax (e.g., ' OR '1'='1). Primary defense: Prepared Statements with Parameterized Queries, which treat all user inputs strictly as data literals rather than executable SQL code, combined with stored procedures and input validation.
5 Compare Stored XSS, Reflected XSS, and DOM-based Cross-Site Scripting (XSS). Stored XSS: malicious JavaScript is permanently stored in a database (e.g., comment section) and executes in victim browsers when viewing the page. Reflected XSS: malicious script is embedded in a URL/link and reflected off the web server in the immediate response. DOM-based XSS: attack payload executes entirely client-side in the browser's Document Object Model without server reflection.
6 Contrast Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) and Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF). CSRF tricks an authenticated user's browser into transmitting unauthorized commands to a vulnerable web application where the user is already logged in, piggybacking on existing session cookies (mitigated by anti-CSRF tokens and SameSite cookies). SSRF exploits a vulnerable web server into forging HTTP requests to internal, non-internet-facing internal infrastructure.

Module 3 (INTERMEDIATE): CISSP Cybersecurity — Security & Risk Management, Asset Security, Security Architecture & Incident Response

Deck Overview: ISC2 CISSP Common Body of Knowledge (CBK) mastery covering Domain 1 Security and Risk Management (CIA, quantitative risk, due care/diligence, threat modeling), Domain 2 Asset Security (data lifecycle, classification, remanence), Domain 3 Security Architecture (Bell-LaPadula, Biba, Clark-Wilson, TPM/HSM), and Domain 7 Operations (forensics, chain of custody, BCP/DRP).

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 Explain the CIA Triad and its opposing DAD Triad counterparts in information security. Confidentiality (preventing unauthorized disclosure) is opposed by Disclosure. Integrity (preventing unauthorized modification or alteration) is opposed by Alteration. Availability (ensuring timely, reliable access to resources for authorized users) is opposed by Destruction or Denial.
2 Compare Quantitative Risk Analysis and Qualitative Risk Analysis. Quantitative: assigns concrete monetary values and objective numerical percentages to all risk factors (AV, EF, SLE, ARO, ALE); requires extensive historical data and complex calculation; directly supports Cost-Benefit Analysis. Qualitative: uses subjective, scenario-based ranking methodologies (e.g., Low/Medium/High matrices, Delphi technique) to prioritize risks based on consensus and judgment.
3 State the mathematical formulas for Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE), and Safeguard Cost-Benefit. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF). ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Safeguard Value / Cost-Benefit = (ALE_before - ALE_after) - Annual Cost of Safeguard (ACS). If the net cost-benefit is positive, the control is financially justified.
4 What are the four primary Risk Treatment Strategies in enterprise risk management? 1. Risk Mitigation (Reduction): implementing security controls and safeguards to lower vulnerability or impact; 2. Risk Avoidance: terminating the activity or dismantling the asset causing the risk; 3. Risk Transference (Sharing): shifting financial liability to a third party (cyber insurance, warranties, outsourcing); 4. Risk Acceptance: acknowledging residual risk within risk tolerance.
5 Contrast Due Care and Due Diligence from a legal and management perspective. Due Care is taking reasonable and prudent steps to protect an organization's assets and people ('doing the right thing' / standard of the reasonable person). Due Diligence is the continuous investigation, auditing, verification, and monitoring to ensure that due care practices are actually functioning and effective ('doing the homework').
6 Explain the STRIDE Threat Modeling framework and the security property each element violates. Spoofing violates Authentication; Tampering violates Integrity; Repudiation violates Non-Repudiation; Information Disclosure violates Confidentiality; Denial of Service violates Availability; Elevation of Privilege violates Authorization.

Module 4 (INTERMEDIATE): Cisco CCNA (200-301) — Spanning Tree (STP), OSPF, BGP, EtherChannel, ACLs, NAT/PAT, IPv6 & Network Automation

Deck Overview: Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA 200-301) blueprint mastery covering Spanning Tree Protocol (STP/RSTP election, port states), OSPFv2 (SPF, areas, DR/BDR, metrics), eBGP fundamentals, EtherChannel (LACP/PAgP), standard and extended ACLs, NAT/PAT, IPv6/NDP, and network automation (REST, JSON, YANG, Ansible).

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 In Spanning Tree Protocol (STP 802.1D), how is the Bridge ID (BID) structured, and how is the Root Bridge elected? BID consists of: 4-bit Bridge Priority (default 32768, configurable in increments of 4096), 12-bit Extended System ID (carries the VLAN ID), and 48-bit Switch MAC address. The switch with the lowest Bridge ID in the broadcast domain wins the Root Bridge election. If priorities are tied, the switch with the lowest MAC address becomes Root Bridge.
2 Explain the STP port roles: Root Port, Designated Port, and Alternate/Blocking Port, and list the tiebreaking criteria. Root Port: one per non-root switch; port with lowest root path cost to root bridge. Designated Port: one per network segment; port forwarding traffic with lowest cost to root. Alternate/Blocking Port: redundant link placed in discarding state to prevent loops. Tiebreakers: 1. Lowest root path cost; 2. Lowest sender Bridge ID; 3. Lowest sender port priority/port number.
3 How does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP 802.1w) achieve convergence in milliseconds compared to 802.1D STP? 802.1D relies on passive timers (30-50 seconds for listening and learning). RSTP (802.1w) achieves sub-second convergence using an active Proposal/Agreement handshake mechanism on point-to-point full-duplex links. RSTP collapses port states into three: Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding.
4 Explain the functions of Cisco STP enhancements: PortFast, BPDU Guard, and Root Guard. PortFast: immediately transitions an access port from blocking to forwarding, bypassing listening and learning states (used for edge host devices). BPDU Guard: error-disables a PortFast-enabled port if any BPDU is received on it, protecting against rogue switches. Root Guard: prevents a downstream switch from becoming the Root Bridge on a designated port by placing it in root-inconsistent state if superior BPDUs arrive.
5 Compare Cisco PAgP and IEEE 802.3ad LACP link aggregation protocols across negotiation modes. PAgP (Cisco proprietary): modes are Auto (passively listens) and Desirable (actively initiates negotiation). An EtherChannel forms if at least one side is Desirable (Desirable-Desirable or Desirable-Auto). LACP (IEEE open standard): modes are Passive (passively responds) and Active (actively initiates). Channel forms if at least one side is Active (Active-Active or Active-Passive).
6 What interface parameters must be identical across all member ports to successfully form an EtherChannel? Member ports must match: speed and duplex settings, interface mode (all access or all trunk), identical access VLAN (if access), identical trunk allowed VLAN list and native VLAN (if trunk), and Spanning Tree cost/priority settings. Mismatches prevent channel bundle formation.

Module 5 (ADVANCED): PMP Project Management (PMBOK 7th Ed.) — Predictive, Agile & Hybrid Lifecycles, Scrum Ceremonies, Stakeholder & Risk Management

Deck Overview: Project Management Professional (PMP) examination mastery aligned with PMBOK Guide 7th Edition: 12 Principles, 8 Performance Domains, predictive/agile/hybrid lifecycles, Scrum roles and ceremonies, backlog refinement, stakeholder matrices, risk management, and formal change control.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 What are the 12 Principles of Project Management defined in the PMBOK Guide 7th Edition? 1. Stewardship (be a diligent, respectful steward); 2. Team (collaborative environment); 3. Stakeholders (effective engagement); 4. Value (focus on value); 5. Systems Thinking (holistic interactions); 6. Leadership (demonstrate leadership behaviors); 7. Tailoring (context-based adaptation); 8. Quality (build quality into processes and deliverables); 9. Complexity (navigate complexity); 10. Risk (optimize risk responses); 11. Adaptability and Resiliency (embrace adaptability); 12. Change (enable change to achieve intended future state).
2 What are the 8 Project Performance Domains defined in the PMBOK Guide 7th Edition? 1. Stakeholders Domain; 2. Team Domain; 3. Development Approach and Life Cycle Domain; 4. Planning Domain; 5. Project Work Domain; 6. Delivery Domain; 7. Measurement Domain; 8. Uncertainty Domain.
3 Compare Predictive, Iterative, Incremental, Agile, and Hybrid project development lifecycles. Predictive (Waterfall): scope, time, and cost defined upfront; phases executed sequentially. Iterative: dynamic requirements; develops concept through repeated cycles/prototypes. Incremental: delivers functional deliverable portions progressively across successive iterations. Agile: both iterative and incremental; rapid feedback cycles; responds to change. Hybrid: combines predictive structure (e.g., fixed hardware deadlines) with agile software sprints.
4 What is the purpose of the Project Business Case versus the Benefits Realization Plan? Business Case: documents the economic feasibility study justifying project investment (NPV, ROI, IRR, Payback Period) and explains business need. Benefits Realization Plan: outlines the processes for creating, maximizing, sustaining, and measuring the specific business benefits delivered by the project during and after project completion.
5 What is the primary function of the Project Charter, and who must authorize it? The Project Charter formally authorizes the existence of a project, establishes high-level objectives, scope boundaries, budget constraints, key milestones, and risks. Crucially, it grants the Project Manager formal organizational authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. It must be issued and signed by the Project Sponsor or initiating executive.
6 In Scrum, distinguish between the responsibilities of the Product Owner, Scrum Master, and Developers. Product Owner: defines product vision, owns and prioritizes the Product Backlog, maximizes product value, and accepts/rejects completed work. Scrum Master: servant leader who coaches the team on Scrum theory, facilitates ceremonies, shields the team from distractions, and removes impediments. Developers: cross-functional professionals who build the Increment and decide how many story points to pull into the sprint.

Module 6 (ADVANCED): PMP Project Management — Earned Value Management (EVM: CPI, SPI, EAC, VAC), Critical Path Method (CPM) & Servant Leadership

Deck Overview: Advanced PMP exam mastery covering Earned Value Management (EVM formulas, CPI, SPI, EAC forecasting, TCPI), Critical Path Method (CPM forward/backward pass, float calculations, schedule compression), leadership theories (Tuckman, Herzberg, Maslow, McClelland), and servant leadership.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 Define the three foundational Earned Value Management (EVM) metrics: Planned Value (PV), Earned Value (EV), and Actual Cost (AC). Planned Value (PV): authorized budget assigned to scheduled work to be accomplished by a given date. Earned Value (EV): measure of work physically performed expressed in terms of the authorized budget (EV = % completed * BAC). Actual Cost (AC): realized cost incurred in accomplishing the work performed by that date.
2 State the formulas for Schedule Variance (SV) and Cost Variance (CV), and explain how to interpret positive versus negative results. Schedule Variance (SV) = EV - PV. Cost Variance (CV) = EV - AC. Positive SV (> 0): ahead of schedule; Negative SV (< 0): behind schedule; Zero SV: on schedule. Positive CV (> 0): under budget; Negative CV (< 0): over budget; Zero CV: exactly on budget.
3 State the formulas for Schedule Performance Index (SPI) and Cost Performance Index (CPI), and explain how to interpret values relative to 1.0. SPI = EV / PV. CPI = EV / AC. SPI > 1.0: project is progressing faster than scheduled (ahead of schedule); SPI < 1.0: project is progressing slower than scheduled (behind schedule). CPI > 1.0: spending efficiency is higher than planned (under budget); CPI < 1.0: project is experiencing cost overruns (over budget).
4 What is the formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) when future work is expected to proceed at the budgeted rate (atypical variances)? EAC = AC + (BAC - EV). This formula is used when past variances are considered atypical or anomalies that are not expected to recur, meaning the remaining work (BAC - EV) will be executed at the originally budgeted rate.
5 What is the formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) when current cost performance (CPI) is expected to continue into the future? EAC = BAC / CPI. This formula is used when past cost variances are typical and expected to continue at the current rate of efficiency for all remaining work on the project.
6 What is the formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) when both CPI and SPI influence the remaining project cost performance? EAC = AC + [(BAC - EV) / (CPI * SPI)]. This formula is used when a project is constrained by a firm schedule deadline, meaning poor schedule performance (SPI < 1) forces the team to compress work, compounding cost inefficiencies (CPI).

3. 8-Week Spaced Repetition & Active Recall Study Schedule

To achieve >90% long-term retention before exam day, follow this structured 8-week interleaving schedule across all 6 decks (192 core cards + your personal error-log cards):

Phase Target Decks Daily New Cards Daily SRS Reviews Exam Application Protocol
Weeks 1–2 (Foundation) Module 1 & Module 2 (Basic) 16 cards/day 25–45 reviews Master core definitions, foundational statutes/physiology, and primary classifications.
Weeks 3–4 (Intermediate Application) Module 3 & Module 4 (Intermediate) 16 cards/day 50–85 reviews Interleave Basic & Intermediate decks; drill multi-step clinical vignettes or statutory exceptions.
Weeks 5–6 (Advanced Mastery) Module 5 & Module 6 (Advanced) 16 cards/day 85–120 reviews Focus on high-difficulty differentials, numerical deadlines, contraindications, and edge-case traps.
Weeks 7–8 (Final Consolidation) All 6 CompTIA Decks (Interleaved) 0 new cards 100–140 reviews Full timed mock blocks + rapid spaced-repetition review of flagged/missed cards.

Related Study Guides in English

1L Law School Deep Dive: Torts I & II, Contracts I & II (UCC Art. 2) & Civil Procedure I & II 1L Law School Deep-Dive Study Guide: Torts I & II, Contracts I & II (UCC Article 2) & Civil Procedure I & II Ace your 1L law school finals and the MBE with 192 subject-by-subject flashcards covering Intentional Torts, Negligence, Strict Liability, UCC 2-207, Personal/Subject-Matter Jurisdiction, Erie, and FRCP.Clinical Medicine Shelf Exams: Psychiatry, Pediatrics, OB/GYN, Surgery, EM & Dermatology Clinical Clerkship Shelf Exams & Step 2 CK Guide: Psychiatry, Pediatrics, OB/GYN, Surgery, EM & Dermatology High-yield clinical clerkship Shelf exam study guide with 192 flashcards across Psychiatry (DSM-5-TR), Pediatrics, OB/GYN, Surgery, Emergency Medicine, Dermatology, and Radiology.CPA Accounting, CFA Level 1, FINRA SIE / Series 7 & Real Estate Licensing Exam CPA Exam (FAR/AUD/REG), CFA Level 1, FINRA SIE / Series 7 & Real Estate License Study Guide Pass the Uniform CPA Exam, CFA Level 1, FINRA SIE & Series 7, and National Real Estate Licensing Exam using 192 active-recall flashcards covering GAAP, Audit, Tax, Fixed Income, Options, and Property Law.GMAT How to Learn Spanish Fast (A1 to C2): The Complete Active Recall & Spaced Repetition Study Guide Master Spanish from beginner A1 to advanced C2 fluency using cognitive science, spaced repetition algorithms, and active recall flashcards. Features an 8-week roadmap, card design frameworks, and sample decks.Constitutional Law How to Study Law & Pass the Bar Exam Using Active Recall Flashcards (Constitutional, Criminal, Contracts & Torts) Master 1L law school outlines and Multistate Bar Exam (MBE) subjects. Learn how to deconstruct black letter law, rule elements, and judicial tests into high-yield spaced repetition flashcards.GMAT Legal Foundations: Multistate Bar Exam (MBE) Contracts, Torts, Evidence & Constitutional Law Comprehensive master handbook comparing active recall and spaced repetition flashcard decks across Pre-Med (USMLE Step 1/MCAT/Anatomy/Top 200 Drugs), Nursing (NCLEX-RN/Critical Lab Values), Law (Multistate Bar Exam MBE/LSAT), and College AP courses on flashcards.world.