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Medicine, Nursing & Clinical English 6 Interactive Flashcard Decks

Clinical Clerkship Shelf Exams & Step 2 CK Guide: Psychiatry, Pediatrics, OB/GYN, Surgery, EM & Dermatology

High-yield clinical clerkship Shelf exam study guide with 192 flashcards across Psychiatry (DSM-5-TR), Pediatrics, OB/GYN, Surgery, Emergency Medicine, Dermatology, and Radiology.

Practice 6 Curated Clinical Medicine Shelf Exams: Psychiatry, Pediatrics, OB/GYN, Surgery, EM & Dermatology Decks ↓ Browse All Clinical Medicine Shelf Exams: Psychiatry, Pediatrics, OB/GYN, Surgery, EM & Dermatology Flashcards →

High-yield clinical clerkship Shelf exam study guide with 192 flashcards across Psychiatry (DSM-5-TR), Pediatrics, OB/GYN, Surgery, Emergency Medicine, Dermatology, and Radiology.

Quick Access: Browse All Pediatrics Flashcard Sets on Flashcards World — 6 complete progressive decks (192 verified flashcards) organized across Basic, Intermediate, and Advanced mastery tiers.

1. Complete 6-Deck Progressive Curriculum Matrix (192 Flashcards)

Module Mastery Level Curated Flashcard Deck Cards Direct Study Link
Module 1 Basic Psychiatry & DSM-5-TR — Mood, Psychotic, Anxiety, Personality Disorders & Psychopharmacology 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 2 Basic Pediatrics — Milestones, Vaccines, Congenital Heart Defects, Immunodeficiencies & Exanthems 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 3 Intermediate Obstetrics & Gynecology (OB/GYN) — Prenatal Care, Labor, Preeclampsia, Postpartum Hemorrhage & Oncology 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 4 Intermediate Surgery & Acute Abdomen — Trauma (ATLS), Shock, Surgical Emergencies, Hernias & Perioperative Care 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 5 Advanced Emergency Medicine & Toxicology — ACLS, Resuscitation, Poisoning Antidotes & Environmental Emergencies 32 Cards Practice Deck →
Module 6 Advanced Dermatology & Radiology — Primary Skin Lesions, Malignant Rashes, Chest X-Ray, CT & MRI Classics 32 Cards Practice Deck →

2. Module-by-Module Syllabus & Sample Active-Recall Flashcards

Each of the 6 modules below is engineered using atomic retrieval prompts: every card isolates a single high-yield rule, diagnostic criterion, statutory article, deadline, or clinical mechanism.

Module 1 (BASIC): Psychiatry & DSM-5-TR — Mood, Psychotic, Anxiety, Personality Disorders & Psychopharmacology

Deck Overview: Diagnostic criteria, time thresholds, mood/psychotic spectrums, personality clusters, and psychotropic pharmacology.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 What are the DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria and minimum duration for a Major Depressive Episode? At least 5 of 9 SIGECAPS symptoms present for >=2 consecutive weeks, representing a change from previous functioning, where at least one symptom must be Depressed mood or Anhedonia (loss of interest/pleasure).
2 What does the SIGECAPS mnemonic stand for in Major Depressive Disorder? S: Sleep changes (insomnia/hypersomnia); I: Interest decreased (anhedonia); G: Guilt/worthlessness; E: Energy loss (fatigue); C: Concentration impairment; A: Appetite/weight changes; P: Psychomotor agitation or retardation; S: Suicidal ideation.
3 What is the key diagnostic difference between Bipolar I Disorder and Bipolar II Disorder? Bipolar I requires at least ONE lifetime Manic episode (>=7 days or requiring hospitalization; marked impairment; +/- psychosis). Bipolar II requires at least one Hypomanic episode (>=4 days, no marked impairment, no psychosis) AND at least one Major Depressive Episode.
4 What duration and symptom count define a Manic Episode according to DSM-5-TR? Distinct period of abnormally elevated, irritable, or expansive mood and increased energy lasting >=1 week (or any duration if hospitalized), with >=3 symptoms (>=4 if irritable): DIG FAST (Distractibility, Impulsivity/indiscretion, Grandiosity, Flight of ideas, Activity increase, Sleep deficit, Talkativeness/pressured speech).
5 What is the difference between Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) and Major Depressive Disorder in duration? Persistent Depressive Disorder requires depressed mood on most days for >=2 years in adults (>=1 year in children/adolescents), without being symptom-free for >2 consecutive months.
6 What is the time frame distinction among Brief Psychotic Disorder, Schizophreniform Disorder, and Schizophrenia? Brief Psychotic Disorder: >=1 day to <1 month (full return to premorbid functioning). Schizophreniform Disorder: >=1 month to <6 months. Schizophrenia: Continuous signs of disturbance for >=6 months (including >=1 month of active phase symptoms).

Module 2 (BASIC): Pediatrics — Milestones, Vaccines, Congenital Heart Defects, Immunodeficiencies & Exanthems

Deck Overview: Developmental milestones, CDC immunization schedule, cyanotic vs acyanotic heart lesions, pediatric rashes, and pediatric emergency conditions.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 What are the major motor and social milestones expected of a 2-month-old infant? Lifts head/chest while prone, tracks past midline, exhibits social smile in response to voices, and coos (reciprocal vocalizations).
2 What gross motor and social milestones are expected at 6 months of age? Sits unsupported (momentarily), rolls both directions (front-to-back and back-to-front), transfers objects hand-to-hand, babbles consonant sounds, and exhibits stranger anxiety.
3 What language, motor, and cognitive milestones are achieved by 12 months (1 year) of age? Gross motor: Stands alone, takes first independent steps. Fine motor: 2-finger neat pincer grasp. Language: Says 1–2 words other than 'mama/dada'. Cognitive: Understands object permanence and responds to simple commands.
4 What speech and gross motor milestones characterize a 2-year-old child? Language: 2-word purposeful phrases ('want milk'), 50+ word vocabulary, 50% intelligible to strangers. Gross motor: Kicks a ball, jumps with both feet, runs, walks up and down stairs two feet per step. Fine motor: Builds tower of 6 cubes, copies a vertical line.
5 What milestones are expected of a 4-year-old child? Hops on one foot, catches a bounced ball, copies a cross and square, draws a 3-part person, speaks in complex sentences with 100% intelligibility to strangers, and engages in cooperative imaginary play.
6 What is the only vaccine administered at birth in healthy newborns? Hepatitis B vaccine (HepB dose 1). (Plus Hepatitis B Immune Globulin [HBIG] within 12 hours if maternal HBsAg is positive or unknown).

Module 3 (INTERMEDIATE): Obstetrics & Gynecology (OB/GYN) — Prenatal Care, Labor, Preeclampsia, Postpartum Hemorrhage & Oncology

Deck Overview: Routine obstetric screening, stages of labor, hypertensive pregnancy disorders, obstetric emergencies, abnormal uterine bleeding, and gynecologic oncology.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 What are the routine prenatal screening tests performed at 24 to 28 weeks of gestation? 1. 50-gram 1-hour oral glucose challenge test (screen for Gestational Diabetes); 2. Repeat complete blood count (CBC) to screen for maternal anemia; 3. Antibody screen in Rh-negative mothers (administer anti-D immune globulin / RhoGAM at 28 weeks if unsensitized).
2 When is routine screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) performed in pregnancy and how is positive screening managed? Screened between 36 0/7 and 37 6/7 weeks of gestation via rectovaginal swab culture. If positive, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV Penicillin G (or Ampicillin) is administered starting at the onset of active labor or rupture of membranes.
3 What defines the three stages of normal labor? Stage 1: Onset of true regular uterine contractions to full cervical dilation (10 cm; subdivided into Latent and Active [>=6 cm] phases). Stage 2: Full cervical dilation (10 cm) to delivery of the neonate. Stage 3: Delivery of the neonate to delivery of the placenta.
4 What defines Active Phase Arrest of labor and what is the next step in management? Cervix is >=6 cm dilated with membrane rupture AND either: 1. No cervical change for >=4 hours with adequate contractions (>200 Montevideo units); or 2. No cervical change for >=6 hours with inadequate contractions. Management: Cesarean delivery.
5 What are the diagnostic criteria for Preeclampsia? New-onset hypertension (SBP >=140 or DBP >=90 on two occasions >=4 hours apart) occurring after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive woman, PLUS either: Proteinuria (>=300 mg/24h or urine protein:creatinine ratio >=0.3), OR severe end-organ dysfunction (thrombocytopenia <100k, creatinine >1.1, elevated transaminases 2x ULN, pulmonary edema, new cerebral/visual symptoms).
6 What severe features define Preeclampsia with Severe Features? SBP >=160 or DBP >=110 on two occasions >=4 hours apart; Thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mcL); Impaired liver function (AST/ALT > 2x normal) or severe persistent RUQ/epigastric pain; Renal insufficiency (serum Cr >1.1 mg/dL or doubling); Pulmonary edema; New-onset persistent cerebral/visual disturbances.

Module 4 (INTERMEDIATE): Surgery & Acute Abdomen — Trauma (ATLS), Shock, Surgical Emergencies, Hernias & Perioperative Care

Deck Overview: Primary/secondary survey, hemoperitoneum/FAST, hypovolemic vs obstructive shock, acute appendicitis/cholecystitis/bowel obstruction, groin hernias, and wound healing.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 What are the priority sequence steps in the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) Primary Survey? A: Airway with cervical spine protection; B: Breathing and ventilation; C: Circulation with hemorrhage control; D: Disability (neurologic status / Glasgow Coma Scale); E: Exposure and environmental control (prevent hypothermia).
2 What are the four anatomical acoustic windows evaluated during a Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) exam? 1. Perihepatic space (Morison's pouch / hepatorenal recess); 2. Perisplenic space (splenorenal recess); 3. Pelvis (suprapubic / pouch of Douglas / retrovesical); 4. Pericardium (subxiphoid / parasternal view). Extended FAST (eFAST) adds anterior pleura for pneumothorax.
3 What is the immediate management for a trauma patient with blunt abdominal injury who is hemodynamically UNSTABLE with a POSITIVE FAST exam? Immediate transfer to the operating room for Emergent Exploratory Laparotomy (CT scanning is strictly contraindicated in hemodynamically unstable patients).
4 What is the clinical presentation and immediate life-saving intervention for Tension Pneumothorax? Severe respiratory distress, tracheal deviation away from affected side, unilateral absent breath sounds, hyperresonance to percussion, distended neck veins, and hemodynamic collapse. Immediate needle decompression at 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line (or 5th ICS anterior axillary line), followed by tube thoracostomy (chest tube).
5 What defines a Flail Chest and what is the underlying cause of resulting respiratory failure? Fracture of >=3 consecutive ribs in >=2 places, creating an unstable chest wall segment that exhibits paradoxical motion (moves inward on inspiration, outward on expiration). Respiratory failure is primarily driven by underlying Pulmonary Contusion, not chest wall instability.
6 What are the physiologic hemodynamics of Hypovolemic Shock versus Cardiogenic Shock versus Septic Shock? Hypovolemic: PCWP/CVP low, Cardiac Output (CO) low, SVR high. Cardiogenic: PCWP/CVP high, CO low, SVR high. Septic (distributive): PCWP/CVP low/normal, CO high (early hyperdynamic), SVR markedly low.

Module 5 (ADVANCED): Emergency Medicine & Toxicology — ACLS, Resuscitation, Poisoning Antidotes & Environmental Emergencies

Deck Overview: ACLS cardiac arrest algorithms, tachy/bradyarrhythmias, environmental hypothermia/heatstroke, carbon monoxide, toxic alcohols, and venomous envenomations.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 What are the two 'shockable' rhythms in ACLS Cardiac Arrest, and what is the immediate electrical therapy? Ventricular Fibrillation (VF) and Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (pVT). Immediate unsynchronized high-energy defibrillation (120–200 J biphasic or 360 J monophasic), followed immediately by 2 minutes of uninterrupted CPR before rhythm check.
2 What are the two 'non-shockable' rhythms in ACLS Cardiac Arrest, and what is the primary initial medical management? Asystole and Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA). Immediate high-quality CPR, early administration of Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO every 3–5 minutes, and rapid search/reversal of underlying reversible causes (Hs and Ts). Shock is contraindicated.
3 What are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest ('Hs and Ts') in ACLS? Hs: Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hypo-/hyperkalemia, Hypothermia. Ts: Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade (cardiac), Toxins, Thrombosis (pulmonary / PE), Thrombosis (coronary / MI).
4 What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio and rate in adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation without an advanced airway? Ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations; compression rate of 100 to 120 per minute; compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm), allowing complete chest wall recoil between compressions.
5 What is the first-line medication and dose for acute symptomatic, hemodynamically unstable Bradycardia in ACLS? Atropine 1 mg IV push every 3–5 minutes (up to maximum cumulative dose of 3 mg). If ineffective, initiate Transcutaneous Pacing or continuous IV infusion of Dopamine (5–20 mcg/kg/min) or Epinephrine (2–10 mcg/min).
6 When is Atropine ineffective in treating bradycardia? In Mobitz Type II second-degree AV block and complete (third-degree) heart block with wide QRS complex (infranodal block), or in heart transplant patients (denervated heart lacks vagal tone). Immediate pacing is required.

Module 6 (ADVANCED): Dermatology & Radiology — Primary Skin Lesions, Malignant Rashes, Chest X-Ray, CT & MRI Classics

Deck Overview: Primary dermatology morphology, blistering diseases, cutaneous malignancies, classic chest X-ray signs, and intracranial neuroimaging emergencies.

# Front (Active Recall Prompt) Back (Verified Exam Answer & Explanation)
1 How are Macules, Patches, Papules, and Plaques defined in dermatologic terminology? Macule: Flat, non-palpable color change <1 cm. Patch: Flat, non-palpable color change >=1 cm. Papule: Elevated, palpable solid lesion <1 cm. Plaque: Elevated, plateau-like palpable solid lesion >=1 cm.
2 What is the morphologic distinction among Vesicles, Bullae, and Pustules? Vesicle: Elevated, fluid-filled blister <1 cm. Bulla: Elevated, fluid-filled blister >=1 cm. Pustule: Elevated, circumscribed lesion filled with purulent fluid (pus), regardless of size.
3 What are the immunopathological differences between Pemphigus Vulgaris and Bullous Pemphigoid? Pemphigus Vulgaris: Autoantibodies against Desmoglein-1 and -3 (desmosomes); intraepidermal acantholysis; flaccid, fragile blisters that rupture easily; positive Nikolsky sign; mucosal involvement common; fishnet pattern on immunofluorescence. Bullous Pemphigoid: Autoantibodies against Hemidesmosomes (BP180/BP230); subepidermal blisters; tense blisters that resist rupture; negative Nikolsky sign; rare oral mucosal involvement; linear basement membrane IgG/C3.
4 What is the classic cutaneous presentation and underlying gastrointestinal disease of Dermatitis Herpetiformis? Intensely pruritic, grouped (herpetiform) erythematous papules and microvesicles on extensor surfaces (elbows, knees, buttocks, upper back). Pathognomonic granular IgA deposition in dermal papillae; pathologically linked to Celiac Disease (gluten-sensitive enteropathy); treated with Dapsone and gluten-free diet.
5 What clinical features differentiate Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) from Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)? Both represent drug-induced keratinocyte apoptosis with severe mucosal erosions and full-thickness epidermal detachment (positive Nikolsky sign). SJS: <10% total body surface area detachment. SJS/TEN overlap: 10–30% TBSA detachment. TEN: >30% TBSA epidermal detachment.
6 What are the ABCDE clinical criteria for evaluating suspected Malignant Melanoma? A: Asymmetry (one half does not match the other); B: Border irregularity (scalloped, notched, or poorly defined); C: Color variation (shades of brown, black, blue, red, white); D: Diameter (>6 mm, pencil eraser size); E: Evolving (lesion changing in size, shape, color, or bleeding/symptoms).

3. 8-Week Spaced Repetition & Active Recall Study Schedule

To achieve >90% long-term retention before exam day, follow this structured 8-week interleaving schedule across all 6 decks (192 core cards + your personal error-log cards):

Phase Target Decks Daily New Cards Daily SRS Reviews Exam Application Protocol
Weeks 1–2 (Foundation) Module 1 & Module 2 (Basic) 16 cards/day 25–45 reviews Master core definitions, foundational statutes/physiology, and primary classifications.
Weeks 3–4 (Intermediate Application) Module 3 & Module 4 (Intermediate) 16 cards/day 50–85 reviews Interleave Basic & Intermediate decks; drill multi-step clinical vignettes or statutory exceptions.
Weeks 5–6 (Advanced Mastery) Module 5 & Module 6 (Advanced) 16 cards/day 85–120 reviews Focus on high-difficulty differentials, numerical deadlines, contraindications, and edge-case traps.
Weeks 7–8 (Final Consolidation) All 6 Pediatrics Decks (Interleaved) 0 new cards 100–140 reviews Full timed mock blocks + rapid spaced-repetition review of flagged/missed cards.

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